destroyer_of_fish asked:

Why is it considered acceptable in society for a woman to strike a man, but not vice versa.

(Striking anyone, any time, is not appropriate other than self defense)

Also why is it acceptable in our society for women to be verbally abusive towards men, but not the vice versa?

Same with rape, why when a man is accused of rape he is guilty until proven innocent because he is a man and the woman is supposedly innocent and telling the truth?

Why do rape shield laws protect women (and can help a false rape case) but work against men?

I am not saying all rape accusations are lies, statistics say that 95 percent of rape accusations are indeed not fabricated.

It just does not make sense.

Can anyone help me out?

Thanks

and Cheers!

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